I have a discrete maths question that requires me to prove the cardinality of the rationales is the same as the cardinality of the Cartesian product of the rationales. I have a feeling it is easy to prove this using Schroder-Bernstein theorem. And this is what I've got so far:
Define $f: \mathbb{Q} \to \mathbb{Q} \times \mathbb{Q}$ in the following way:
for $a/b \in \mathbb{Q}$, and $\gcd(a,b)=1, f(a,b) = (a,b)$ and it is easy to show this is an injection, but what about the other around? (i.e. to find an injection from $\mathbb{Q} \times \mathbb{Q} \to \mathbb{Q}$)
Any help would be appreciated!
Thanks :)