A certain country removed the $1$ cent and $2$ cent coin, and therefore was intended that every cash transaction be rounded to the nearest $5$ cent (note there are $100$ cents in every dollar.). Assuming that the number of cents in each transaction is uniformly distributed.
Amounts to be paid are rounded to the nearest $5$ cents when paid in cash. If paid electronically via credit card, the exact amount is charged.
You can abuse this system by paying for transactions in cash when the amount will be rounded down, and paying electronically (credit
card or EFTPOS) when the amount would have been rounded up. Let $Y$
be the amount of money you save by using this approach, in a transaction
that would be rounded to the nearest $5$ cents if paid for in cash.
It then asks for the PDF of the r.v. $Y$. I had this:
$$f_{Y}(y) = \begin{cases} \frac{3}{7} \qquad y=0 \\ \frac{2}{7} \qquad y=1\\ \frac{2}{7}\qquad y=2.\end{cases}$$
However, the solution says this:
$$f_{Y}(y) = \begin{cases}\frac{3}{5}\qquad y=0 \\ \frac{1}{5}\qquad y=1 \\ \frac{1}{5} \qquad y=2 \\ 0 \qquad \text{otherwise.}\end{cases}$$
I don't understand how it was constructed, as since the transaction only occurs when we know the cost will round down, I don't see why there would be a $\frac{3}{5}$ for example, in the PDF.
This is how I found mine: I listed out all the "possible" transaction value that could happen for any 10 cent interval:
So transactions ending in
$00$,$01$,$02$,$03$,$04$,$05$,$06$,$07$,$08$,$09$,$10$ (the $10$ represents a transacion like $\$ 1.10$ and the $00$ represents a transcation like $\$1.00$).
So for any cash transaction, I'd cross out the ones that would make me round up, and we're left with:
$00$,$01$,$02$,$05$,$06$,$07$,$10$
So there are seven possibilities where I'd make a cash transaction.
$Y=0$ means I gain nothing, so that'd be at $00$,$05$,$10$, making it have $\frac{3}{7}$ probability. This was done similarly for the other probabilities. Basically, I don't see how the answer can have denominators of $5$.
Thanks for any help