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I found the proof of Generalization of Hölder's inequality from Wikipedia

I get the other part, but I don't get why in case 1: we have the inequality $\Vert f_1f_2\cdots f_n \Vert_r \leq \Vert f_1f_2 \cdots f_{n-1} \Vert_r \Vert f_n \Vert_\infty $

Could someone explain this?

Andy
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1 Answers1

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Take $f = f_1 f_2 \ldots f_{n-1}$ and $g = f_n$. Then, by Hölder's inequality we have $$\|fg\|_r \leq \|f\|_r \|g\|_\infty,$$ i.e. $$\|f_1 f_2 \ldots f_{n-1} f_n\|_r \leq \|f_1 f_2 \ldots f_{n-1}\|_r \|f_n\|.$$

md2perpe
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