I found the proof of Generalization of Hölder's inequality from Wikipedia
I get the other part, but I don't get why in case 1: we have the inequality $\Vert f_1f_2\cdots f_n \Vert_r \leq \Vert f_1f_2 \cdots f_{n-1} \Vert_r \Vert f_n \Vert_\infty $
Could someone explain this?