This is a dumb question, but it is tricky for me because my understanding of the concept of vacuous truth is still very poor. Also, note that this question is based on problem 5.3.17 in Garrity, Belshoff, Boos, et al, Algebraic Geometry: A Problem Solving Approach.
algebraic set in $\mathbb{P}^n(k)$: a set of the form $\{p \in \mathbb{P}^n(k): f(p) = 0, \forall f \in S \}$ where $S$ is a set of homogeneous polynomials in $k[x_0, \dots, x_n]$.
ideal generated by an algebraic set in $\mathbb{P}^n(k)$:
given an algebraic set in $\mathbb{P}^n(k)$, $X$, the ideal generated by $X$, denoted $I(X)$, is the ideal generated by the set: $\{f \in k[x_0, \dots,x_n]: f\text{ homogeneous}, f(p)=0\,\, \forall p \in X \}$.
Question: What is $I(\emptyset)$, the ideal generated by the empty set?
I can't decide whether or not it is all of $k[x_0, \dots, x_n]$, or just the irrelevant ideal, $\langle x_0, \dots, x_n \rangle$.
Attempt: Attempting to apply the definition directly, I get: $$I(\emptyset):= \langle\{ f \in k[x_0, \dots, x_n]: f \text{ is homogeneous, }f(p)=0\,\forall p \in \emptyset \}\rangle $$ It's the last part, the $\forall p \in \emptyset$, which trips me up, because it requires me to use vacuous truth, since no point $p \in \mathbb{P}^n(k)$ is in the empty set.
So is the generating set all $f \in k[x_0, \dots, x_n]$, regardless of whether they are homogeneous or ever equal $0$, because of vacuous truth? Is it just all homogeneous polynomials? In both of these cases, $1$ is a member of the generating set, so we get that $I(\emptyset)=k[x_0,\dots,x_n]$.
But if the generating set is just homogeneous polynomials which equal $0$ at at least one point, i.e. zero and all non-constant homogeneous polynomials (since $k$ is algebraically closed), then we conclude that $I(\emptyset) = \langle x_0, \dots, x_n \rangle$.
Here's another argument for $I(\emptyset) = \langle x_0, \dots, x_n \rangle$. The zero locus of $\langle x_0, \dots, x_n \rangle$, denoted $V(\langle x_0, \dots, x_n \rangle)$ is $\emptyset$. By the (homogeneous) Nullstellensatz, we have that $$I(\emptyset) = I(V(\langle x_0, \dots, x_n \rangle)) = \operatorname{Rad}(\langle x_0, \dots, x_n\rangle)$$ Since $\langle x_0, \dots, x_n \rangle$ is maximal, it is also prime, and therefore also radical, i.e. equal to its own radical, so we conclude that in fact $I(\emptyset) = \langle x_0, \dots, x_n \rangle$.
I am more convinced of the second argument, because I actually understand it fully. But is it actually correct? And either way, how can one modify the argument from the definition using vacuous truth to get the same result?