One way to calculate it would be doing:
$\dfrac{\int_0{}^{r}\int_0{}^{r}\sqrt{(x_1-x_2)^2+(\sqrt{r^2-x_1^2}+\sqrt{r^2-x_2^2})^2} \ \ \ dx_1 \ dx_2}{r^2}$
This seems impossible to integrate it, but knowing that $x_1=rcos\alpha \ and \ x_2=rcos\beta$ we get
$r\sqrt{2}\int_0{}^{\pi/2}sin\beta\int_0{}^{\pi/2}sin\alpha\sqrt{1-cos(\alpha-\beta)} \ \ \ d\alpha \ d\beta $
However this integral gives as a result $0$, but it should give around $r·0.41975$, this last result has been calculated just iterating with a program.
can anyone figure out why its not giving the right result? $\ \ $ Thank you.