Can I get help for this question? I have no idea. $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty = \frac {(n^n)}{(n)!n^n}$$ The problem wants convergence status from me.
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4Why don't you cancel $n^n$ from numerator and denominator. You just have $\sum \frac{1}{n!}$ – Sahiba Arora Jun 30 '17 at 14:27
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1Hint: $\frac{n^n}{n^n}=1$ and $\sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{1}{n!}=e-1$. – Jack D'Aurizio Jun 30 '17 at 14:27
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Ah didn't see that. I don't have any idea, started in this week. – Götebakar Jun 30 '17 at 14:27
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Oh I still can't solve, where am i missing? – Götebakar Jun 30 '17 at 14:28
2 Answers
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Hint: simplifying the fraction gives $\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n!} < 1 + 1/2 + 1/6 + \sum_{n = 4}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}$.
user388557
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Your series is $\sum \frac{1}{n!}$. Let $a_n = \frac{1}{n!}$. Then $$\lim|\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}|=\lim \frac{n!}{(n+1)!}=\lim\frac{1}{n+1}=0<1$$
By ratio test, the given series converges.
Sahiba Arora
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