I know from my intuition that the sequence
$$x_n=\left(1-\cfrac{1}{3}\right)^2 \left(1-\cfrac{1}{6}\right)^2 \left(1-\cfrac{1}{10}\right)^2\cdots \cdots\left(1-\cfrac{1}{\cfrac{n\left(n+1\right)}{2}}\right)^2,\quad n\geq2$$
is convergent. But i don't know how to prove it.I almost try to apply every theorem I know (for eg ratio test ,monotone convergence theorem,...). Help me to prove this.
Proof or idea is needed.Where does the sequence converge to?