I have some doubts which I divided into two parts. Suppose the following universal sentence ∀x (Px → Qx) (i) Could I use universal generalization on it? I mean
- ∀x (Px → Qx)
- Px → Qx from 1, Universal instantiation
- ∃x (Px → Qx) from 2, Existential generalization
What's wrong with this proof? Don't the universal quantifiers actually suppose, or imply, existential quantifiers? (ii) What's the actual difference between universal and existential quantifiers? From what I gathered (a) universal quantifiers have meaning, but not necessarily denotation (i.e., they express classes but don't they assure these have members), whereas (b) existential quantifiers necessarily have both meaning and denotation (i.e., the classes these propositions express have at least one member). If universal quantifiers don't necessarily have denotation, would this mean that they only have meaning too (i.e., universal quantifiers have only meaning and no denotation at all)? In any cases, if the proof above holds, wouldn't it imply that the classes which universal quantifiers range over have at least one member and so contradict (a)?