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I've been asked to prove (or disprove) that there exists a topological space $X$ with the following property:

For every space $T$ there is a set $I$ and a homeomorphism $T\cong A$ where $A$ is a quotient of a subspace of $X^I = \prod_{i\in I} X$ (product topology)

Of course, this smells like a universal property, and a rather strong one, so I'm inclined to think there is no such $X$. But how can one prove that such a space does not exist?

fosco
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  • As a strategy you could try to derive properties of such an $X$, see if we get inconsistencies. – Henno Brandsma Jul 16 '17 at 13:01
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    Fun fact: with subspaces and products of one space we can use $X= {0,1,2}$ with topology ${\emptyset, X, {0}}$. The question might be inspired by this fact – Henno Brandsma Jul 16 '17 at 13:05
  • @HennoBrandsma yep, that's why I find the question interesting: quotients always mess up everything – fosco Jul 16 '17 at 13:09
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    $X$ cannot be connected, because then $A$ would always be connected. Ditto with compact. $X$ cannot have any non-trivial property preserved by continuous maps (which implies quotients) and products. – Henno Brandsma Jul 16 '17 at 13:11
  • It would be interesting to have non-trivial topological properties $\mathcal{P}$ such that $X/R \in \mathcal{P}$ (in the quotient topology obviously) then $X \in \mathcal{P}$ as well. I cannot really come up with good examples. (as a finite space cannot have $\mathcal{P}$) – Henno Brandsma Jul 16 '17 at 13:16
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    So shouldn't there be “$A$ is a quotient of $X^I$” rather than “$A$ is a quotient of a subspace of $X^I$”? – user87690 Jul 16 '17 at 15:44

3 Answers3

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You can do this without even needing quotients. Let $X=\{0,0',1\}$, with the topology $\{X,\emptyset,\{1\}\}$. Given any space $T$, let $I$ be the set of all continuous maps $T\to X$. There is a canonical continuous map $F:T\to X^I$ given by $F(t)(f)=f(t)$. I claim that $F$ is a homeomorphism onto its image, so $T$ is homeomorphic to the subspace $A=F(T)\subseteq X^I$.

First, $F$ is injective, since the subspace $\{0,0'\}$ of $X$ is indiscrete and so any map $T\to \{0,0'\}$ is continuous. In particular, given any two distinct points of $T$, we can find a continuous map $T\to X$ which sends one of them to $0$ and the other to $0'$.

Second, $F$ is open as a map onto its image. Indeed, let $U\subseteq T$ be open. Then the function $f:T\to X$ sending $U$ to $1$ and $T\setminus U$ to $0$ is continuous. The image $F(U)$ is then exactly the set of elements of $F(T)$ whose $f$ coordinate is $1$. This is an open subset of $F(T)$ since $\{1\}$ is open in $X$. Thus $F$ is open as a map to $F(T)$.

Eric Wofsey
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  • This is what I said in the comments. One space (the same space you gave) allows us to see any space as a subspace of a power of $X$. But how is this space then a quotient of a power of $X$?? – Henno Brandsma Jul 16 '17 at 17:39
  • I thought he said quotient of $X^I$ first, but changed it later to quotient of a subspace. In the latter case my comment already had this answer as well. – Henno Brandsma Jul 16 '17 at 17:44
  • Yes, I wrote this answer before I saw the comments on the question. It is possible that the question was written incorrectly, or that the asker didn't realize that allowing "quotients of subspaces" also allows just plain subspaces. – Eric Wofsey Jul 16 '17 at 17:49
  • @HennoBrandsma That's why you don't answer in comments! :-p – wizzwizz4 Jul 16 '17 at 19:04
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Summarising the other answers:

The embedding theorem shows that any topological space $S$ is homeomorphic to a subspace of $X^I$ for some index set $I$, where $X = \{0,1,2\}$ with topology $\{\{0\}, \emptyset, X\}$ (a sort of "fat Sierpinski space"). See Wofsey's answer for some more details. The essence is that $X$ allows us to separate points and separate points and closed sets by continuous functions into $X$.

This shows that the variant in the "quotients of subspaces" is answered by yes, without taking quotients at all; not very interesting.

The variant "quotients of $X^I$ " is answered by user 87690's answer:

Suppose $X$ existed. Let $S$ be the discrete space on $|X|^+$ (successor cardinal) points, and suppose we have a surjective quotient map $q: X^I \to S$, for some index set $I$.

Indeed standard theorems show that if $\kappa$ is the smallest infinite cardinality of a dense subset of $X$, so $\kappa \le |X|$, then $X^I$ has no pairwise disjoint family of open non-empty sets of size $>\kappa$. But this is contradicted by $\{q^{-1}[\{s\}], s \in S\}$. This contradiction shows that $X$ cannot exist for all topological spaces $S$.

IMHO this last answer is more interesting as it does use quotients, albeit in the guise of just a continuous image.

A true dual to the powers/subspace variant would be:

Does there exist a space $X$, such that for any topological space $S$, there is a (surjective) quotient map $q: \sum_{i \in I} X_i \to S$ where all $X_i = X$, and $\sum$ denotes disjoint sums of spaces in their sum topology.

(this idea occurs in the theory of sequential spaces, where we take quotients of copies of a convergent sequence); I think it might hold. [EDIT] No such luck, by the same argument that sequential spaces are countably tight, we get that the tightness of quotients of sums of copies of $X$ will not exceed $t(X)$... Thx to the comment.

Henno Brandsma
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    The true dual variant of the question has also negative answer, but instead of density and cellularity, we use tightness. We have $t(S) ≤ t(∑_{i ∈ I} X) = t(X)$. – user87690 Jul 16 '17 at 19:11
  • @user87690 and quotients indeed "preserve" (decrease possibly) tightness. Nice. – Henno Brandsma Jul 16 '17 at 19:22
  • Note that tightness (or also character for examle) works also for the variant “subspace of sum”. – user87690 Jul 16 '17 at 19:44
  • @user87690 Subspace of sum is a priori without a chance because these would mostly be disconnected or subspaces of $X$. So no space that is connected and not homeomorphic to a subspace of $X$ (such exist) can be formed that way. Subspace and products are initial topologies, quotient and sums their initial analogues. Hence my dual question. – Henno Brandsma Jul 16 '17 at 19:48
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Note that there is no space $X$ such that every space $T$ is homeomorphic to some quotient $A$ of a whole power $X^I$ (rather than of some of its subspaces).

By $Δ$-system lemma, $c(∏_{i ∈ I} X_i) = \sup\{c(∏_{i ∈ F} X_i) : F ⊆ I \text{ finite}\}$. Hence, we have $c(A) ≤ c(X^I) ≤ \sup_{n ∈ ω} c(X^n) ≤ d(X)$. Therefore a space $X$ of density $κ$ can generate only spaces $A$ of cellularity $≤ κ$.

user87690
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  • What is the density of a space? What is the cellularity of a space? – Ivan Di Liberti Jul 16 '17 at 17:01
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    @IvanDiLiberti: These are standard cardinal invariants of topological spaces. Density $d(X)$ is the minimal (sometimes by definition infinite) cardinality of a dense subset of $X$. Cellularity (or Suslin number) $c(X)$ is the (again infinite) supremal cardinality of a cellular family, i.e. a pairwise disjoint family of nonempty open subsets. Clearly, $c(X) ≤ d(X)$. – user87690 Jul 16 '17 at 17:09
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    This doesn't work because you're allowed to take subspaces of $X^I$. – Eric Wofsey Jul 16 '17 at 17:12
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    @EricWofsey By the discussion under the question, I concluded that it was meant not to use subspaces. But yes, your answer explains in detail how the fact mentioned by Henno Brandsma works, and answers the question how it is written. – user87690 Jul 16 '17 at 17:17