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Is it possible for integrals to have functions of the integrand in the bounds of the integral such as $\int_0^x x\,dx$ or more generally $\int_0^{f(x)} x\,dx$ ?

I have seen this several times in the past few weeks for the first time and I am not sure whether they were typos. If this is possible, would the solution be :

$$\left. \frac {x^2} 2 \right|^x_0 \text{ ?}$$

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    People sometimes write things like $\displaystyle \int_0^x \cos x,dx$ when they are in effect treating the $x$ in $\displaystyle \int_0^x$ and the $x$ in $\cos x,dx$ as two different things. It is at best infelicitous notation and I avoid it. $\qquad$ – Michael Hardy Aug 03 '17 at 02:24
  • https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3533541/integral-notation-confusion-x-vs-t?noredirect=1 – Mike Earnest Sep 13 '23 at 17:48

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No. The variable of integration is a loop variable and it goes out of scope before the endpoints get evaluated.

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