Let's call $(1)$ the open set characterization in terms of $\varepsilon$-neighborhoods and $(2)$ its characterization in terms of sequences.
Theorem. $(1) \iff (2)$
Proof.
Let's prove $(1)\implies (2)$
From the definition of convergence, for all sequences $(x_n)$ converging to $x$, where $x$ is any element of $O$, whatever $\varepsilon$-neighborhood $B_{\varepsilon}(x)$ is chosen there exists an $n_0$ (depending on $B_{\varepsilon}(x)$) such that $\forall n\ge n_0$, $x_n\in B_{\varepsilon}(x)$. But that implies that $x_n\in O$, because from $(1)$ there exists a $B_{\varepsilon}(x)\subseteq O$.
Let's now prove $\mathrm{not} (1) \implies \mathrm{not} (2)$
If $(1)$ is false, that is if for a given $x\in O$ no $\varepsilon$-neighborhood $B_{\varepsilon}(x)$ is included in $O$ then by choosing countably many of them such that $B_{\varepsilon_n}(x)\subseteq B_{\varepsilon_m}(x)$ when $n>m$, a sequence $(x_n)$ with $x_n\in B_{\varepsilon_n}(x)\setminus O$ exists because $B_{\varepsilon_n}(x)\setminus O\ne\emptyset$, $\forall n$, and is convergent in $x$ because for whatever $B_{\varepsilon}(x)$ there exists an $n_0$ such that $B_{\varepsilon_{n_0}}(x)\subseteq B_{\varepsilon}(x)$ from which it follows that $\forall n>n_0$, $x_n\in B_{\varepsilon}(x)$. So a sequence $(x_n)$ convergent to $x$ has been found such that $x_n\notin O$: this imples that $(2)$ is false.