If you think at $\sin(xy)$ be expressed as a combination of a FINITE number of sums and powers of $\sin(x)$ and $\sin(y)$ , the answer is certainly no.
With infinite series, one can imagine a formal answer (more a joke than serious)
Starting from :
$$\sin(xy)=\sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^k x^{2k+1}y^{2k+1}}{(2k+1)!}$$
$$a=\sin(x)\quad\to\quad x=\sin^{-1}(a)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{\left(\frac{1}{2} \right)_n a^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)n!}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{\left(\frac{1}{2} \right)_n \sin^{2n+1}(x)}{(2n+1)n!}$$
And similarly
$$y=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{\left(\frac{1}{2} \right)_n \sin^{2n+1}(y)}{(2n+1)n!}$$
$\left(\frac{1}{2} \right)_n$ is the Pochhammer symbol $=\frac{\Gamma(n+\frac{1}{2})}{\Gamma(\frac{1}{2})}$.
Finally, the monster :
$$\sin(xy)=\sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^k \left(\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{\left(\frac{1}{2} \right)_n \left(\sin(x)\right)^{2n+1} }{(2n+1)n!} \right)^{2k+1}\left(\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{\left(\frac{1}{2} \right)_n \left(\sin(y)\right)^{2n+1} }{(2n+1)n!} \right)^{2k+1}}{(2k+1)!}$$