In finite metric space all sets are open
Is it true because all singletons are open and the union of them is open too?
In finite metric space all sets are open
Is it true because all singletons are open and the union of them is open too?
It's true, but another way:
In any metric space, finite or not, all singletons are closed. So finite sets are closed.
In a finite metric space, any subset has a finite (hence closed) complement. So all sets are open.
Basically the proof says that a singleton in finite metric space is open because for all point in the neighborhood of the singleton (and there are none) $N_{s}\subseteq {s}$?
– gbox Aug 07 '17 at 21:42Let $M=\{x_1,x_2,\cdots,x_n\}$ be a finite metric space.
Let $A=\{x_1\}$ Then $A^c=\{x_2,x_3,\cdots,x_n\}$ is a finite set, hence closed. Therefore, $A$ is open.
Similarly, all singletons are open.
Now, let $B$ be any subset of $M.$ Then $B$ is a finite union of open sets(singletons), hence open.
In general, all subsets of a metric space are open if singletons are open.
Edit 1: To show a finite set is closed, it is sufficient to show that any singleton is closed (since finite union of closed sets is closed)
Let $X$ be a metric space and $x \in X$. We need to show $\{x\}$ is closed. It suffices to show that $\{x\}^c$ is open. Let $ y \in \{x\}^c.$ Then $y\neq x.$ Hence, $d(x,y)>0.$ Let $$r=\frac{d(x,y)}{2}>0$$ Then $B(y,r) \subseteq \{x\}^c.$ This shows $\{x\}^c$ is open.
Edit 2: Let $z \in B(y,r)$. Then $$d(z,y)<r=\frac{d(x,y)}{2}<d(x,y)$$ Hence, $z \neq x$. Therefore, $z \in \{x\}^c.$ As $z \in B(y,r)$ was arbitrary, therefore $B(y,r) \subseteq \{x\}^c.$