I want to show that as $\epsilon \to 0$ : $$ \int_0 ^1 \frac{\ln(x)}{x+\epsilon}= -\frac{1}{2} \ln ^2 \left( \frac{1}{\epsilon} \right) -\frac{\pi^2}{6} + \epsilon \left( 1-\frac{\epsilon}{4} + \frac{\epsilon^2}{9} - \frac{\epsilon^3}{16} + ... \right). $$
I started by splitting the range of integration to: $\overbrace{\int_0 ^\delta}^{:=I_1} + \overbrace{\int_\delta ^ 1}^{:=I_2}$ where $\epsilon \ll \delta \ll 1 $.
To calculate $I_2$, I used a taylor expansion around $\epsilon=0$ to obtain $$ I_2= -\frac{1}{2} \ln ^2 \delta - \epsilon \left( \frac{\ln \delta +1 - \delta}{\delta} \right) . $$
As for $I_1$, I cannot use taylor expansion of $\ln (x)$, because it doesn't have one, so what can I do to approximate it?