I think a nice way to accept those cusps at $\infty$ would be to compare the limits of the derivatives of those functions as $x \to \infty$ in each direction in this clever way. I imagine $f$ will have no cusp at $\infty$ if
$$\lim_{x\to \infty} \left(f'(x) - f'(-x)\right) = 0\,.$$
We can see in the case of $f(x) = x^2$ that this limit is nonzero, so there should be a cusp, but in the case $f(x) = x^3$ the limit is zero.
And then in the case of functions like $f(x) = 1/x^2$ or $f(x) = 1/x$ that approach infinity as $x \to 0$, you can shift the discontinuity to infinity and use the same trick. So if your function $f$ has a discontinuity caused by an asymptote at $x=a$, then you could look at
$$\lim_{x\to \infty} \;f'\left(\frac{1}{x-a}\right) - f'\left(-\frac{1}{x-a}\right) = 0\,.$$
Also, I'm not quite sure what you are trying to say with, "... n +even and near 0 for n -even ... ".
– Mike Pierce Aug 18 '17 at 16:46