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Prove that $ (\tan\frac{A}{2})^2 + (\tan \frac{B}{2})^2 + (\tan \frac{C}{2})^2 \ge 1$ when $A,B,C$ are the angles in a triangle.

I am trying to solve it using Jensen's Equality but not getting any desired result. Is there any other methodology of solving this problem.

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    Hint: $\tan\frac{A}{2}\tan\frac{B}{2} + \tan\frac{B}{2}\tan\frac{C}{2} + \tan\frac{C}{2}\tan\frac{A}{2} = ?$ – achille hui Aug 25 '17 at 07:11
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    Also: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/842881/42969, https://math.stackexchange.com/q/972765/42969 – all found instantly with Approach0 – Martin R Aug 25 '17 at 07:29
  • @MartinR Holy... uh, moly, I wasn't aware of Approach0. Seems pretty sweet! – Chris Aug 25 '17 at 07:32
  • @Chris: More info here: https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/24978/announcing-a-third-party-search-engine-for-math-stackexchange. It works quite well. Unfortunately, few people know about it (or care to search for duplicates, even if the first impression of any experienced user should be "That must have been asked before!" :) – Martin R Aug 25 '17 at 07:36

2 Answers2

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From Jensen's inequality the finite form you have: $\frac 1 3((\tan\frac{A}{2})^2 + (\tan \frac{B}{2})^2 + (\tan \frac{C}{2})^2) \ge (\tan(\frac {A + B + C}{6}))^2 = \frac 1 3 $

You'll have to justify Jensen's inequality by proving $f(x) = \tan^2(x), x \in (0, \frac {\pi}{2})$ is a convex function, which is quite obvious since the composition of two convex nondecreasing functions is convex.

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Let $a$, $b$ and $c$ be sides-lengths of the triangle.

Thus, by law of cosines we need to prove that: $$\sum_{cyc}\frac{1-\frac{b^2+c^2-a^2}{2bc}}{1+\frac{b^2+c^2-a^2}{2bc}}\geq1$$ or $$\sum_{cyc}\frac{(a+b-c)(a+c-b)}{a+b+c)(b+c-a)}\geq1$$ or $$\sum_{cyc}(a+b-c)^2(a+c-b)^2\geq(a+b+c)\prod_{cyc}(a+b-c)$$ or $$\sum_{cyc}(a^2-b^2-c^2+2bc)^2\geq\sum_{cyc}(2a^2b^2-a^4)$$ or $$\sum_{cyc}(3a^4+4a^2b^2-2a^2b^2-2a^2b^2+4a^2bc+2a^2b^2-4a^3b-4a^3c)\geq \sum_{cyc}(2a^2b^2-a^4)$$ or $$\sum_{cyc}(a^4-a^3b-a^3c+a^2bc)\geq0,$$ which is Schur.

Done!

Also we can use the following. $$\sum_{cyc}\tan^2\frac{\alpha}{2}\geq\sum_{cyc}\tan\frac{\alpha}{2}\tan\frac{\beta}{2}=1$$ for which we need to prove that $$\sum_{cyc}\tan\frac{\alpha}{2}\tan\frac{\beta}{2}=1,$$ which is $$\tan\frac{\alpha}{2}\left(\tan\frac{\beta}{2}+\tan\frac{\gamma}{2}\right)=1-\tan\frac{\beta}{2}\tan\frac{\gamma}{2}$$ or $$\tan\frac{\alpha}{2}\tan\frac{\beta+\gamma}{2}=1$$ or $$\tan\frac{\alpha}{2}\cot\frac{\alpha}{2}=1,$$ which is obvious.