Let $1_{E}$ be the charecteristic function and $m$ be the Lebesgue measure (Note that $m$ is not a variable). Then
$$\int_{[0,\pi]}\sin(x)1_{(\mathbb{R}-\mathbb{Q})}dm=\int_{[0,\pi]}\sin(x) dm-\int_{[0,\pi]}\sin(x)1_{\mathbb{Q}}dm$$
Since $\sin(x)$ is positive on the interval $[0,\pi]$ and bounded above by
$1$ we see that:
$$0\leq\int_{[0,\pi]}\sin(x)1_{\mathbb{Q}}dm\leq \int_{[0,\pi]}1_\mathbb{Q}dm=m(\mathbb{Q}\cap [0,\pi])=0$$
So
$$\int_{[0,\pi]}\sin(x)1_{(\mathbb{R}-\mathbb{Q})}dm=\int_{[0,\pi]}\sin(x) dm$$
In the case of riemann integratable functions on a closed inteval like $\sin(x)$ the Lebesgue integral just becomes the riemann integral:
$$\int_{[0,\pi]}\sin(x)dm=\int_{[0,\pi]}\sin(x)dx=-\cos(\pi)+\cos(0)=2$$
so
$$\int_{[0,\pi]}\sin(x)1_{(\mathbb{R}-\mathbb{Q})}dm=2$$