Let $\Omega$ be a domain with $C^1$-boundary and $1 \leq p < \infty$. Then there's exactly one bounded linear operator $$tr_{ \partial \Omega}: W^1_p(\Omega) \rightarrow L^p(\partial \Omega), ~ u \mapsto u|_{\partial \Omega}$$
for all $u \in C^1_b(\bar \Omega) \cap W^1_p(\Omega)$.
Our lecturer said that $\partial \Omega$ is a set of measure zero and as such, this map would not be welldefined if we only had $u \in W^1_p(\Omega)$, but with $u \in C^1_b(\bar \Omega)$ as well, it is well-defined.
Could someone please explain this statement to me?