Consider a metric space $M=(X,d)$ and a map $f:X\to X$ such that for all $x,y\in X$, $$ d(f(x),f(y))\leq d(x,y). $$
Is the following statement true (maybe for finite $M$ or even compact $M$?)?
For every $Y\subseteq X$, we have $$ \text{diam}((X\setminus f(X))\cup f(Y))\geq \text{diam}(Y). $$
In particular, I'm looking for the case when the $M$ is a finite tree (simply connected finite simplicial 1-complex).