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I was wondering, how to calculate the following definite integral that appeared in an integration bee (preferably the quickest way possible).

$$\int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{1}{\sin^4x + \cos^4x} dx$$

JayJuly
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  • What have you done, as a baseline solution, prior to asking for the "quickest (subjective) way"? – amWhy Sep 29 '17 at 17:29
  • The usual dictum is to use double-angle formulas for even powers (and $u$-substitution for odd powers) of sine and cosine. You might well have a better approach available, but Readers need some benchmark against which they can decide if their suggestions improve upon your present understanding. – hardmath Sep 29 '17 at 20:14
  • I will be providing more context / baselines in my future questions. I apologize for not doing so here. – JayJuly Sep 29 '17 at 20:19

5 Answers5

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Note that $$\sin^4 x + \cos^4 x = \frac{3+\cos(4x)}{4}$$ (see for example How to simplify $\sin^4 x+\cos^4 x$ using trigonometrical identities?).

Hence, by letting $z=e^{it}$, $dz=zidt$ and recalling that $\cos(t)=\frac{z+1/z}{2}$, we get \begin{align*} \int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{1}{\sin^4x + \cos^4x} dx&= \int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{d(4x)}{3+\cos(4x)} \\ &=\int_{0}^{8\pi}\frac{dt}{3+\cos (t)}=4\int_{0}^{2\pi}\frac{dt}{3+\cos (t)}\\ &=4 \int_{|z|=1} \frac{dz/(zi)}{3+\frac{z+1/z}{2}}\\ &=\frac{8}{i} \int_{|z|=1} \frac{dz}{z^2 + 6z + 1}\\ &=16\pi\,\mbox{Res}\left(\frac{1}{z^2 + 6z + 1},2\sqrt{2}-3\right)\\ &=16\pi\,\left.\frac{1}{(z^2 + 6z + 1)'}\right|_{z=2\sqrt{2}-3}\\ &=16\pi\,\frac{1}{2(2\sqrt{2}-3) + 6}=2\sqrt{2}\pi. \end{align*}

Robert Z
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  • Any idea on how to proceed after this? The indefinite integral is particularly nasty and the bounds on the definite integral appear to be nice. What kind of manipulations can be performed to find the definite integral? – JayJuly Sep 01 '17 at 18:44
  • @JayJuly Any further doubt? P.S. Two downvotes. WOW! – Robert Z Sep 01 '17 at 18:56
  • @Robert Z I got the same result by another way! +1 – Michael Rozenberg Sep 01 '17 at 18:58
  • I won't downvote, but consider, please: do you want to show how clever you are, or do you want to help the OP? If it's the latter, you should explain your steps more generously. –  Sep 01 '17 at 18:58
  • @ Professor Vector OP Asked for the "the quickest way possible". So give it a try. I am ready to give all the explanations that JayJuly is going to ask. – Robert Z Sep 01 '17 at 19:11
  • @Professor Vector Show us your solution, please. – Michael Rozenberg Sep 01 '17 at 19:13
  • @Robert Z I apoligize (should have read the original question more carefully): they didn't know what they were asking for, you're correct. –  Sep 01 '17 at 19:20
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    @Michael Rozenberg: no, thanks, I'm not a textbook. As I admitted already, I missed what the OP was asking for (brave, very brave), so the answer is absolutey ok. –  Sep 01 '17 at 19:26
  • Thank you for your solution! It does appear that the complex substitution is quite useful in scenarios with constants mixed with cos or sin, like the 3 + cos(t). I am slightly confused on the part with Res. I am trying to research this operation online but it's difficult for me to understand this calculation. Would you mind explaining it, at least in terms of integral if not more generally? Thank you once again! – JayJuly Sep 02 '17 at 00:59
  • @JayJuly By Residue Theorem, we have to compute the residue at the roots of $z^2 + 6z + 1$ which are inside $|z|=1$, that is at $z_0=2\sqrt{2}-3$. Since the order of this root is $1$, $z_0$ is a simple pole and the residue is equal to $1$ over the derivative of $z^2 + 6z + 1$ evaluated at $z_0$. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Residue_(complex_analysis)#Simple_poles – Robert Z Sep 02 '17 at 07:38
  • @RobertZ Hello, I have "checkmarked" your answer as I really like the creativity used, and I do this technique is applicable to other integrals with sin and cosine functions. – JayJuly Sep 02 '17 at 17:14
  • @JayJuly I am glad the my answer was useful. – Robert Z Sep 02 '17 at 17:14
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First, note the integrand has period $\pi$ and has a symmetry w.r.t. the lines $x=\dfrac\pi2$ and $x=\dfrac\pi4$. As a consequence, $$\int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{1}{\sin^4x + \cos^4x}\,\mathrm d\mkern 2mu x= 8\int_{0}^{\tfrac\pi4} \frac{1}{\sin^4x + \cos^4x}\,\mathrm d\mkern 2mux $$

Bioche's rules suggest to set $\;t=\tan x$, so that $\;\mathrm d\mkern 2mu x=\dfrac{\mathrm d\mkern 2mu t}{1+t^2}$.

But actually, we even may set $\;u=\tan 2x$, $\;\mathrm d\mkern 2mu u=2(1+\tan^2x)\,\mathrm d\mkern 2mu x$. Indeed \begin{align} \sin^4x+\cos^4x&=(\sin^2x +\cos^2x)^2-2\sin^2x\cos^2x=1-\frac12\sin^22x\\ &=1-\frac12\frac{\tan^2 2x}{1+\tan^2 2x}=\frac{2+\tan^2 2x}{2(1+\tan^2 2x)}, \end{align} so that the integral is $$ \int_0^\infty\frac{2(1+u^2)}{2+u^2}\cdot\frac{\mathrm d\mkern 2mu u}{2(1+u^2)}= \int_0^\infty\frac{\mathrm d\mkern 2mu u}{2+u^2}=\frac1{\sqrt 2}\,\arctan\biggl(\frac u{\sqrt 2}\biggr)\biggm\vert_0^\infty=\frac\pi{2\sqrt2}, $$ and finally $$\int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{1}{\sin^4x + \cos^4x}\,\mathrm d\mkern 2mu x=2\sqrt2\,\pi.$$

Bernard
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  • Why you answer is different? – Nosrati Sep 01 '17 at 19:37
  • Don't know, and I'm too tired to check my computations now. What I know is I took into account the discontinuities for the change of variable on the given interval of integration . – Bernard Sep 01 '17 at 19:46
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The substitution $\tan{x}=t$ helps.

$dt=\frac{1}{\cos^2x}dx=(1+t^2)dx$.

Thus, $dx=\frac{1}{1+t^2}dt$. $$\sin^4x+\cos^4x=2\cos^4x-2\cos^2x+1=\frac{2}{(1+t^2)^2}-\frac{1}{1+t^2}+1.$$ Thus, we need to calculate $$4\int\limits_0^{+\infty}\frac{\frac{1}{1+t^2}}{\frac{2}{(1+t^2)^2}-\frac{1}{1+t^2}+1}dt$$ or $$4\int\limits_0^{+\infty}\frac{1+t^2}{t^4+1}dt$$ or $$4\int\limits_0^{+\infty}\frac{1+\frac{1}{t^2}}{\left(t-\frac{1}{t}\right)^2+2}dt$$ or $$4\int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\frac{1}{x^2+2}dx,$$ which is $4\cdot\frac{\pi}{\sqrt2}=2\sqrt2\pi$.

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This is related to the other answers here, but I think the logic of it is more straightforward. It proceeds in three steps.

  1. Reduce the integral using the half-angle formulae and periodicity considerations. This gives $$ \int_0^{2\pi}\frac{dx}{\sin( x)^4 + \cos( x)^4} = 2\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{dx}{1+\cos(2x)^2} = 8\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac{dx}{1+\cos(2x)^2}. $$

  2. Convert the integrand to a rational function using an inverse trig substitution. In this case, $2x = \mathrm{cot}^{-1}(t)$ is the preferred option, as its derivative has no square roots and simple trigonometry gives $\cos[\cot^{-1}(t)] = t^2/(1+t^2)$. With this substitution, $dx = -dt/[2(1+t^2)]$ and $$ 8\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac{dx}{1+\cos(2x)^2} = 8\int_{\infty}^{-\infty}\frac{1}{1+t^2/(1+t^2)}\left[-\frac{dt}{2(1+t^2)}\right] = 4\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{dt}{1+2t^2}. $$

  3. Use rational function methods to evaluate the integral. I'm going to gloss over this one, though, as the integrand is clearly the derivative of an arctangent function. So we have $$ 4\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{dt}{1+2t^2} = \left.\frac{4}{\sqrt{2}}\tan^{-1}\left(\sqrt{2}t\right)\right|_{-\infty}^\infty = 2\sqrt{2}\pi. $$

Thus, $$ \int_0^{2\pi}\frac{dx}{\sin( x)^4 + \cos( x)^4} = 2\sqrt{2}\pi $$

eyeballfrog
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Hint:

$$\sin^4x + \cos^4x = (\sin^2x + \cos^2x)^2 - 2\sin^2x\cos^2x = 1 - 2\sin^2x\cos^2x$$

And again

$$2\sin^2x\cos^2x = 2(\sin x \cos x)^2 = 2\left(\frac{\sin2x}{2}\right)^2 = \frac{1}{2}\sin^22x$$

Hence in the end

$$\sin^4x + \cos^4x = 1 - \frac{1}{2}\sin^22x$$

You can treat this.

Alex M.
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Enrico M.
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