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Recurrence relation, Fibonacci numbers

could someone possibly help me prove. thankyou.

$(a)$ Consider the recurrence relation $a_{n+2}a_n = a^2 _{n+1} + 2$ with $a_1 = a_2 = 1$.

prove $a_n$ and $a_{n+1}$ are coprime for $n \in \mathbb N$

so far i have:

$a_1 = a_2 = 1$

$a_3 = 3$

$a_4 = 11$

$a_5 = 41$

james
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    have you tried using induction? –  Nov 20 '12 at 22:19
  • yup but it ended up gettin really messy and i got more confused then anything, im assuming the best way would be by contradiction? – james Nov 20 '12 at 22:21
  • james: please see the question linked above as a duplicate: your question is asked and addressed in that post. – amWhy Nov 20 '12 at 22:28
  • thankyou i just skimmed through that and it is the same question, ive completed all the sections, however, cant seem to prove why they're coprime? – james Nov 20 '12 at 22:30
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    james, see also http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/240724/fibonacci-question?lq=1 – amWhy Nov 20 '12 at 22:38

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For every $n$, $a_{n+2}\color{red}{a_n}-a_{n+1}\color{red}{a_{n+1}}=2$ hence Bézout says that the gcd of $\color{red}{a_n}$ and $\color{red}{a_{n+1}}$ is either $1$ or $2$. Since every $a_n$ is odd, this gcd is $1$.

Did
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