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I did not understand the proof from the word "and some sets in this infinite sequence are from $\{G\}$....." to the end. Thanks for helping me to understand.

$k$ cell in $\mathbb{R}^k$ is defined as $\{x=(x_1,\dots, x_k):a_i\le x_i\le b_i\}=[a_1,b_1]\times\dots[a_k,b_k]$

Myshkin
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2 Answers2

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It's not clear what the reasoning is. In my opinion the idea is that you have a sequence of subcells each covered by an infinite cover with no infinite subcover which is itself a subcover of $G$. This sequence converges to a point and this point is contained in an open set $U$ of $G$. But then $U$ must entirely contain a subcell and here it's the contradiction

karmalu
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In that prove we have infinite subcell all of it contain only one point and each of it can be covered by one open set of cover but still $G$ covered by infinite open cover, I think we must say if we can't cover $G$ by finite sub cover we split $G$ into $2^k$ of $k$ cells each of them covered by finite sub cover (one) if one of it can't cover take the same manner and split it (split up finite turn).

mucciolo
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