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Problem:

$$\text{Solve} \quad 2\tan{2x}\leq3\tan{x}.$$

A problem of this character will yield 5 points on an exam. However, having the correct answer does not suffice to get all the 5 points. Full stringency and mathematical accuracy, on top of a correct final answer, warrants full house. I've decided to present a (partial) solution here and I want you to help me really to comb through it and search for possible logical loopholes.


Solution attempt:

Application of the double angle formula for $\tan{x}$ on LHS yields:

$$\text{LHS}=2\cdot\frac{\sin{2x}}{\cos{2x}}=2\cdot\frac{2\sin{x}\cos{x}}{\cos^2{x}-\sin^2{x}}=[\text{Divide by} \ \cos^2{x}\neq0]=\frac{4\tan{x}}{1-\tan^2{x}}.$$

Setting $t=\tan{x}$ and moving the RHS over and subtracting gives the equivalent inequality:

$$\frac{4t}{1-t^2}-3t=\frac{4t-3t(1-t^2)}{1-t^2}=\frac{t(1+3t^2)}{(1+t)(1-t)}=p(t)\leq0.$$

Since the factor $(1+3t^2)>0, \ \forall x\in \mathbb{R}, $ it suffices to examine the signs of the factors $t, \ (1+t), \ (1-t)$ and the entire expression that I denoted $p(t).$ The following table emerges:

\begin{array} {|l|cr} t= & -\infty & -1 & \ & 0 & \ & 1 & +\infty\\ \hline 1+t & - & 0 & + & & + & & +\\ \hline t & - & & - & 0 & + & & +\\ \hline 1-t & + & & + & & + & 0 & -\\ \hline p(t)& + & \varnothing & - & 0 & + & \varnothing & -\\ \end{array}

This indicates that the solutionset of $p(t)\leq0$ is given by $t\in(-1,0]\cup(1,\infty).$ Hereafter I'm stuck, I don't know how to revert to $x$. How do I do this in an effective way?

Parseval
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  • If $t=\tan(x)$ is between $-1$ and 0, what can $x$ be? It might be easiest to restrict your attention to the angles between $-\pi/2$ and $\pi/2$ to start, then expand your set of solutions by periodicity. – Xander Henderson Sep 08 '17 at 14:45
  • Is this for a freshman calculus class? – Ovi Sep 08 '17 at 14:47
  • @Ovi - Yes, it is. – Parseval Sep 08 '17 at 14:48
  • The formula $;\tan 2x=\dfrac{2\tan x}{1-\tan^2x}$, and the formulae for $\sin 2x$ and $\cos 2x$ in function of $\tan x$ should be known from high school, so you don't have to re-prove them. – Bernard Sep 08 '17 at 14:50
  • @Bernard - True, I know that formula, however I just added a fast proof just in case. – Parseval Sep 08 '17 at 14:52
  • @XanderHenderson - If we only look at $(-1,0],$ then $ - \frac{\pi}{4}< \tan{x} \leq 0.$ Shouldn't I also check the interval $1,\infty)$ now? How? – Parseval Sep 08 '17 at 14:55
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    @Parseval Exactly. And yes, once you finish with one interval, you should look at the other. I just like to break problems down into smaller problems before trying to attack them. – Xander Henderson Sep 08 '17 at 14:56
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    Worth noting that your MathJax is really fantastic on this post! – Brevan Ellefsen Sep 08 '17 at 20:20
  • @BrevanEllefsen - Was waiting for a compliment on my MathJax. Took some time to craft that table :P Thank you for noticing! – Parseval Sep 08 '17 at 21:49

3 Answers3

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The goal is to find conditions on $x$ such that $\tan(x)$ will be in the indicated intervals. Recall that if $x\in \left[ -\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right] =: \mathcal{D}$, then $$\tan(x) = y \iff \arctan(y) = x.$$ It isn't too difficult to see that $$ \arctan(-1) = -\frac{\pi}{4}, \qquad\text{and}\qquad \arctan(0) = 0.$$ Since $\arctan$ is increasing and continuous on its domain, it follows that $\tan(x) \in (-1,0]$ and $x\in\mathcal{D}$ if and only if $$ x \in (\arctan(-1),\arctan(0)] = \left( -\frac{\pi}{4}, 0\right].$$ By a similar argument, we conclude that $\tan(x) \in (1,\infty)$ and $x\in\mathcal{D}$ if and only if $$ x \in \left(\arctan(1),\lim_{y\to\infty} \arctan(y)\right) = \left( \frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{\pi}{2} \right).$$ As the tangent function is periodic with fundamental period equal to $\pi$, it follows that if $x$ satisfies the given inequality, then so to will $x + k\pi$ for any $k \in\mathbb{Z}$. Therefore the complete set of solutions is given by $$ \bigcup_{k\in\mathbb{Z}} \left[ \left( -\frac{\pi}{4} + k\pi, k\pi\right] \cup \left( \frac{\pi}{4} + k\pi, \frac{\pi}{2}+k\pi \right) \right].$$

  • Yes, this answer was great! I understand each and every step. Thank you! However, now we got some pretty nice intervals $(-1,0]$ and $(1,\infty)$ which gave us some nice values for $\arctan$. What if we instead got $(-3,2]$ and $(3,\sqrt{20})$ or something similar? – Parseval Sep 08 '17 at 15:04
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    Trig functions are transcendental functions, which means that you can't generally use algebraic tricks to understand them. About the best that you can do if you have numbers that aren't "nice" is either leave them as $\arctan(-3)$ (for example), or get a numerical approximation (using, for example, bisection or Newton-Raphson). – Xander Henderson Sep 08 '17 at 15:23
  • Correction: $\arctan(0) = 1$ should read $\arctan(0) = 0$. – John Nicholson Feb 09 '19 at 03:12
  • @JohnNicholson Indeed, thank you. In the future, you should feel free to edit (or suggest an edit) to an answer that has a silly typo in it like that. ;) – Xander Henderson Feb 09 '19 at 14:24
  • @Xander Henderson I tried, the editor wanted more than one character edited. – John Nicholson Feb 11 '19 at 15:47
  • @JohnNicholson Ahha! Well, nevermind then. Again, thank you. :) – Xander Henderson Feb 11 '19 at 15:48
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Duplication formula for tangent

$\dfrac{4 \tan x}{1-\tan ^2 x}\leq 3 \tan x$

Bring all in the LHS

$\dfrac{4 \tan x}{1-\tan ^2 x}-3 \tan x\leq 0$

add together

$-\dfrac{\tan x \left(3 \tan ^2 x+1\right)}{\tan ^2 x-1}\leq 0$

which is better as

$\dfrac{\tan x \left(3 \tan ^2 x+1\right)}{\tan ^2 x-1}\geq 0$

The parenthesis $\left(3 \tan ^2 x+1\right)$ is positive for any $x$ because is the sum of two squares so we need to see where

$\tan x \geq 0$ verified in $0\leq x <\dfrac{\pi}{2}\lor \pi\leq x <\dfrac{3\pi}{2}$

and $\tan ^2 x-1>0$ verified when $\tan x<-1\lor \tan x>1$

which is $\dfrac{\pi }{4}<x<\dfrac{\pi }{2}\lor \dfrac{\pi }{2}<x<\dfrac{3 \pi }{4}\lor \dfrac{5 \pi }{4}<x<\dfrac{3 \pi }{2}\lor \dfrac{3 \pi }{2}<x<\dfrac{7 \pi }{4}$

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The solution is then

$\dfrac{\pi }{4}<x<\dfrac{\pi }{2}\lor \dfrac{3 \pi }{4}<x\leq\pi \lor \dfrac{5 \pi }{4}<x<\dfrac{3 \pi }{2}\lor \dfrac{7 \pi }{4}<x\leq2 \pi$

Raffaele
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We need to solve $$\frac{4\tan{x}}{1-\tan^2x}\leq3\tan{x}$$ or $$\tan{x}\left(\frac{4}{1-\tan^2x}-3\right)\leq0$$ or $$\frac{\tan{x}(3\tan^2x+1)}{(1-\tan{x})(1+\tan{x})}\leq0,$$ which by the intervals method gives $$\tan{x}<-1$$ or $$0\leq\tan{x}<1$$ and we got the answer: $$\left[\pi k\leq x<\frac{\pi}{4}+\pi k\right)\cup\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}+\pi k,-\frac{\pi}{4}+\pi k\right),$$ where $k\in\mathbb Z$.

For example, the inequality $\tan{x}<-1$ we can solve by the following way.

Draw the trigonometric circle (the circle $x^2+y^2=1$) and the tangent to the circle in the point $B(1,0)$.

This line names a tangents-axis.

Let $A(1,a)$ placed in the tangents-axis.

Thus, easy to see that $\tan\measuredangle AOB=a$ and since we need to solve $\tan{x}<-1$,

we got $-\frac{\pi}{2}<x<-\frac{\pi}{4}$ (see on the tangents-axis).

Since the period of $\tan$ is equal to $\pi$, finally we obtain: $$-\frac{\pi}{2}+\pi k<x<-\frac{\pi}{4}+\pi k,$$ where $k\in\mathbb Z$.

By the similar way we can solve $0\leq\tan{x}<1$.