3.3.1. Let $f \colon P_\bullet \to Q_\bullet$ be a chain map of complexes. We define the mapping cone in the following way. Let $M_n = P_{n-1} \oplus Q_n$, and define $d_n^M \colon M_n \to M_{n-1}$ by $$ d_n^M(x,y) = ( -d_{n-1}^P(x), d_n^Q(y) + f(x) ). $$ Show that $(M_n, d_n^M)$ forms a chain complex, and that we have a long exact sequence $$ \dotsb \longrightarrow \operatorname{H}_n(Q) \longrightarrow \operatorname{H}_n(M) \longrightarrow \operatorname{H}_{n-1}(P) \longrightarrow \dotsb $$
(Original picture of the problem here.)
This is an exercise so I am not looking for any answers but rather to understand parts of the question I am uncertain of. I have managed to prove that we in fact have a complex, however I don’t quite understand how the arrows in the long exact sequence looks like, can someone bring clarity to this?