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This is an exercise from Conway that I am stuck at. I think the function $φ$ is clearly continuous for points $(z, w)$ such that $z$ and $w$ are not equal. However I can't show that $φ$ converges to the derivative of $f$ at z as $(z, w)$ goes to points where $z$ and $w$ are equal... Also it is clear that for each fixed $w$, $f$ is analytic for points $z$ not equal to $w$. But how can I show that $f$ is analytic at $z=w$? Could anyone please help me with this problem?

Keith
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  • Compare https://math.stackexchange.com/q/2188817/42969 and https://math.stackexchange.com/q/18838/42969 – Martin R Sep 13 '17 at 14:52

1 Answers1

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Hint

$$\lim_{z \to w} \frac{f(z)-f(w)}{z-w}$$ is the definition of the derivative of $f$ at $w$.

Hint 2 Write the Taylor series of $f$ at $w$. Then, calculate from this $z \to \phi(z,w)$.

N. S.
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