Let's assume $d>0$ as well. $$\int\frac1{x^2+bx+c}dx$$ where $b$ and $c$ are real numbers and $d=4c-b^2$
So my observation here is that this looks mightily similar to the standard integral that results in $\arctan u$, that integral usually solves from some form like $\frac1{u^2+1}$ where u is whatever has been substituted.
When the conditions are like this with the real numbers $b,c$. And $d$ being an expression. I'm not really sure where to even begin. Throws my integral intuition out the window!
Any ideas on how a solution is reached on this one? Much appreciated. :)