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Is $\mathbb{Z}[x]/\langle x-3\rangle$ a field?

Answer:

Since $x-3$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$, we have $\mathbb{Z}[x]/\langle x-3\rangle$ a field.

But I know that $\langle x-3\rangle$ is not a maximal ideal.

Thus, $\mathbb{Z}[x]/\langle x-3\rangle$ is not a field.

So I got confused about the different outcomes.

I need help .

egreg
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MAS
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    It's not a field because there is no unity $\frac{1}{x-3}\notin \mathbb{Z}[x]/ \langle,x-3,\rangle$ – JohnColtraneisJC Sep 18 '17 at 14:46
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    Proper notation is $\mathbb Z[x]/\langle x-3\rangle,$ not $\mathbb Z[x]/.$ And if you don't know how to code something like this, google "latex symbols" and you'll find it. $\qquad$ – Michael Hardy Sep 18 '17 at 14:47
  • @BenjaminMoss : $\quad \uparrow \qquad$ – Michael Hardy Sep 18 '17 at 14:47
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    @MichaelHardy Thank you fixed – JohnColtraneisJC Sep 18 '17 at 14:49
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    @BenjaminMoss: In $\mathbb{Z}[x]/\langle x - 3 \rangle$, $x-3$ is the zero element! It could only contain $1/(x-3)$ if it were the zero ring! –  Sep 18 '17 at 14:52
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    @Hurky1 I guess what I meant was that in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ there are obviously no quotients so it isn't a field to begin with, therefore $\mathbb{Z}[x]/\langle,x-3,\rangle$ isn't a field, but wasn't very precise in stating it originally. – JohnColtraneisJC Sep 18 '17 at 14:56
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    @BenjaminMoss But whenever you mod out a maximal ideal from a commutative ring you do get a field. For example $\Bbb{Q}[x]/\langle x^2-3\rangle$ is a field. Here the problem is that $\langle x-3\rangle$ is not a maximal ideal of $\Bbb{Z}[x]$. For any prime $p$ $\langle p, x-3\rangle$ OTOH is a maximal ideal, and therefore $\Bbb{Z}[x]/\langle p, x-3\rangle$ is a field. – Jyrki Lahtonen Sep 18 '17 at 15:53

3 Answers3

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Your mistake is thinking that irreducible elements in integral domains give you fields/maximal ideals. This isn't true in general.

Let $R$ be an integral domain, and let $0 \neq \omega \in R$. Then $\omega$ is irreducible if and only if $(\omega)$ is a proper ideal and maximal in the set of principal ideals of $R$. And $\omega$ is prime if and only if $(\omega)$ is a prime ideal. However, such prime ideals need not be maximal.

In any integral domain, a prime element is irreducible. In a unique factorization domain like $\mathbb{Z}[X]$, the converse is true. The polynomial $X - 3$ is irreducible, so it is prime, and so it generates a prime ideal. Therefore, $\mathbb{Z}[X]/(X-3)$ is an integral domain. But it is not a field: the quotient is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}$, as you can see from the surjective homomorphism $\mathbb{Z}[X] \rightarrow \mathbb{Z}, f(X) \mapsto f(3)$ with kernel $(X-3)$.

In a principal ideal domain, all the things you want coincide: $\omega$ generates a maximal ideal if and only if it is prime, if and only if it is irreducible. But $\mathbb{Z}[X]$ is not a principal ideal domain. In fact, if $A$ is a ring, then $A[X]$ is a principal ideal domain if and only if $A$ is a field.

D_S
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$f \in K[x]$ irreducible $\implies$ $K[x]/(f)$ field only works when $K$ is a field.

lhf
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A loose philosophical way of thinking about this...

When you form $R[x]$ you are taking the ground ring $R$ and appending an extra element $x$ that behaves as freely as possible while still giving a ring: you can take positive powers, scale, add, and multiply in the usual ways, but you introduce no other relations.

When you then form $R[x]/(f)$ you are doing the first construction, but then forcing $f(x)=0$, which causes additional restrictions on $x$ to kick in, making the resulting ring smaller (or not any bigger). You should think this way: $\mathbb{Z}[x]/(x-3)$ takes $\mathbb{Z}$, appends a mystery symbol $x$, but then declares $x-3=0$, or just $x=3$. Thus you have appended something that was already there, so the resulting ring should be the same as $\mathbb{Z}$ itself: $$ \mathbb{Z}[x]/(x-3) \cong \mathbb{Z}. $$ This is exactly what @D_S claims in their answer.

The same philosophy shows why $\mathbb{R}[x]/(x^2+1)$ creates the complex numbers. You take the real field $\mathbb{R}$, append a new symbol $x$, but then force $x$ to act like $x^2+1=0$, or $x^2=-1$. Thus, we really took $\mathbb{R}$ and appended $x=i$ (or $x=\pm i$, but that's overkill) and made the "smallest" ring possible out of this, which is $\mathbb{C}$.

(These aren't rigorous arguments: I am only trying to guide intuition in thinking about these things, something vastly undersold in teaching.)

Randall
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