
I don't understand why A isn't a valid consequence of (~Q) and Q=>P. I think the first line that I highlighted is the textbook's proof of why A isn't a valid consequence of (~Q) and Q=>P, since they're both true but A is false. However, on the second highlighted line, we see that (~Q), Q=>P and A are all true, which to me would make A a valid consequence of (~Q) abd Q=>P, yet it's not.
While writing, I just noticed that for the proposition ~P and Q=>P, there's only one value that makes them both true, and since A is also true for this particular value, that would make A a valid consequence of the ~P and Q=>P proposition. However, for ~Q and Q=>P, there are TWO values that make both of them true, but for one of the case the value for A is false, so by convention people would say that ~Q and Q=>P isn't a valid consequence to avoid any "contradiction". Is my interpretation correct?