I'm stuck at proving this statement:
Let $f$ be a convex real-valued function in $\mathbb R^d$.
Then, for every $n\in\mathbb N$, the function $x\mapsto\frac{f(nx)}n$ is convex as well.
(In my case $f$ is a cumulant generating function $f_n(x)=\log(\mathbb E[\exp(\langle x,Z_n\rangle)])$ of a random variable $Z_n$, but I suspect this is generally true, even outside of the $\mathbb R^d$ case).
This seems easy, but searching for the title yielded nothing of importance.