Question: $f\in C^2(-\infty,+\infty)$, $|f(x)|\leq 1$, $[f(0)]^2+[f'(0)]^2=4$. Prove that there exists $\xi$ s.t. $$ f(\xi)+f''(\xi)=0. $$
I find this question in the chapter about mean value theorem, and I set up function $G=f^2+f'^2$ as usual. WLOG set $f(0)\geq 0$ and $f'(0)\geq 0$. Use Taylor mean value theorem I get $$ f(1)=f(0)+ f'(0)+\frac{1}{2}f''(\eta). $$ Set $x=f(0)\geq 0$ I get $$ f''(\eta)\leq 1-x-\sqrt{4-x^2}\leq -1. $$ So I get $$ f(\eta)+f''(\eta)\leq 0 $$ I want to prove by contradition, then I assume $\forall x\in(-\infty,+\infty)$, $f(x)+f''(x)<0$. Then I have no idea.
My question is: Is this idea correct? How to use the function $f^2+f'^2$(I haven't use it yet)?