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Is this a valid proof:

We take the contrapositive statement, that if $a < 1$ and $b < 1$, then $ab < 1$, and suppose, to the contrary, that $ab\geqslant 1$. It would follow that \begin{align*} ab && \geqslant && 1\\ a && \geqslant && b^{-1}.\\ \end{align*} By definition, however, $b < 1$ implies $b^{-1} > 1$, and we now have $1 \geqslant a \geqslant b^{-1}> 1$, which compresses to $1>1$, providing a contradiction.

Izzy M.
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1 Answers1

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Technically yes, this is a valid proof. However it's very clunky and far more complicated than you need.

  • You proceed by contradicting the contrapositive. You could have completely skipped this step, to say that if $0 < a < 1$, $b \ge a^{-1} > 1$.

  • There's no need to do contradiction once you've already gotten the contrapositive. If $0 \le a < 1$ and $0 \le b < 1$, then $0 \le ab < 1 \cdot 1 = 1$ and you're already done.