i feel this question is over the top simple but these sort of questions screw with my thinking so i'd like clarification.
Let X be non empty and $\rho: X \times X \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ satisfy $0 \leq \rho(x,y) < \infty~\forall x,y \in X, ~\rho(x,y)=0 \text{ iff } x=y, \text{ and } \rho(x,y) \leq \rho(x,z) + \rho(y,z) ~ \forall x,y,z \in X$ prove that $\rho$ is a metric on X
my issue comes from the fact that the question gives us that rho satsifies all the axioms of a metric on X with the exception of $d(x,y) = d(y,x)$ but that seems kind of trivial in this instance.
whats my lecturer expecting of me? is this question just an exercise in showing i know the definition of metric? or is there something im missing? if its the former then the answer would be just stating the definition of a metric, taking two elements in x and going through the axioms one at a time.
any help would be greatly appreciated. thanks.
Editted in attempt (Dead-end)
from the answer below it seems that i'm ment to show that $\rho(x,y)=\rho(y,x)$ and though i said it was trivial perhaps i jumped the gun as it seems natural but trying to prove it was a little more difficult.
heres my attempt can anyone tell me whether this is valid.
Consider the points $x,y$ then we can say that $\rho (x,y) = c_1$ from the perspective of x and $\rho (y,x)=c_2$ from the perspective of y. then the problem becomes showing that $c_1 = c_2$
Let $C$ be the set of all distances c generated from $\rho (x,y)$. C is non-empty as for $x \in X$ \rho (x,x)=0 and $0 \in C$
define $d:C\times C \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ to be the absolute metric on C. ie $\forall c_1,c_2 \in C~, d(c_1,c_2) = |c_1-c_2|$ and so (C,d) is a metric space.
then from the definition of a metric we have $(\forall c_1,c_2 \in C \times C)[(d(c_1,c_2)=0 \Longleftrightarrow c_1 = c_2 \Rightarrow \rho(x,y)=\rho(y,x)$
does this work?
very sorry about that.
(Dead-end)