For each $n \in \mathbb{N}$ we have a statement $P(n)$. We know that the following statements are true:
$$P(0) \tag1$$
$$P(1)\tag 2$$
$$\forall n\in \mathbb{N} (P(n)\text{ and }P(n+1)) \to P(n+2) \tag3$$
I'm to show that $\forall k\in \mathbb{N}$ $P(k)$ must be true.
I've encountered induction proofs before, but I'm a little bit uncertain about how to proceed here. I'm thinking:
$P(0)$ is true. And then we have our induction hypothesis (IH): $P(k)$ is true. Then I have to show that $P(k+1)$ is true. By using (3) with $P(0)$ and $P(1)$, I get that $P(2)$ is true. And by using (3) with $P(1)$ and $P(2)$ I get that $P(3)$ is true and so on.
$\bigg($by using (3) for i= 0 to i = k-3 I then get $P(i)$ is true, $\forall i\in [0,k-1]$ and then using (3) again with $n=k-1$ I get that $P(k+1)$ is true. $\bigg)$
But I feel like this is a pretty lousy induction proof and not how I'm supposed to do it.