An (almost) duplicate of the question I want to ask is Adjoint map is Lie homomorphism.
I went to that question to find the answer to the question it asks: How do I prove that $ad_x$ is a Lie homomorphism?
I now am a little confused. I thought that I wanted to prove that $ad_x$ is a Lie homomorphism, but now I'm not sure that's actually true.
I now realise that perhaps I was confused (as that asker was) and that $ad$ is a Lie homomorphism, where $ad : g \rightarrow End(g)$ sends $x \in g$ to $ad_x$. $ad_x$ is potentially not a Lie homomorphism (I have no reason to think it is.
Question 1: Is $ad_x:g \rightarrow g, y \mapsto [x,y]$ a Lie homomorphism? I've tried to prove it (because I misunderstood something), and I can't, so I think not.
Question 2: Considering instead $ad:g \rightarrow End(g), x \mapsto ad_x$, we need to show that $ad([x,y]) = [ad(x),ad(y)]$
It suffices to show that these are identical on every $z \in g$, so we want that $ad([x,y])(z) = [ad(x),ad(y)](z)$
And I'm not sure how to proceed from here. Am I getting the right idea or should I be doing this differently?