Let $C_1$ and $C_2$ be convex cones in $\mathbb{R}^n$. Show that $C_1\bigoplus C_2$ is also a convex cone and that $C_1 \bigoplus C_2 = $ conv$(C_1 \cup C_2)$.
My attempt:
Need to show that $\boldsymbol{x}\in C_1$, $\boldsymbol{y}\in C_2$ implies that $\lambda\boldsymbol{z}\in C_1\bigoplus C_2$ for all $\lambda\ge 0$.
Let $\boldsymbol{x}\in C_1$ and $\boldsymbol{y}\in C_2$.
$C_1$ and $C_2$ are convex cones, so $\lambda \boldsymbol{x}\in C_1$ and $\lambda \boldsymbol{y}\in C_2$.
Now, let $\boldsymbol{z}=\boldsymbol{x}\bigoplus\boldsymbol{y}$. Assume that $\boldsymbol{z}\in$
I am stuck at this point. I have seen a similar definition somewhere that begins by assuming that $\boldsymbol{x}\in C_1\bigoplus C_2$, but I think it is better (more correct?) to begin with $\boldsymbol{x}, \boldsymbol{y}$ only in $C_1, C_2$ and deduce the conclusion from there. Unless that somehow isn't possible.
I am sure this is, in fact, simple, but I would appreciate polite feedback and advice. Thank you for your time
$\boldsymbol{x}=\sum_{j=1}^k \lambda_j\boldsymbol{x}_j$, where
$\sum_{j=1}^k \lambda_j = 1$,
$\lambda_j \ge 0 \quad$ for $j=1,...,k$, where $k$ is a positive integer and $\boldsymbol{x}_1$,...,$\boldsymbol{x}_k \in S$
– user391838 Oct 28 '17 at 23:22