I was browsing a proof here. At the end of the proof, the author says:
$\operatorname{diam}(\bar{E}) \leq \operatorname{diam}(E)+ε.$ Since $\epsilon > 0$ is arbitrary, $\operatorname{diam}(\bar{E}) \leq \operatorname{diam}(E)$.
I'm not sure how the author made $\epsilon$ go away by saying that it's arbitrary. Even if it's arbitrary, it is still greater than zero and I don't know how one can turn it into zero. Can someone please clarify?