I feel like there is a pretty critical flaw with my logic here but I cant figure out where it is.
I don't have much knowledge about imaginary and complex numbers , but I've watched Khan academy's video on them earlier and saw this video here , where he demonstrated that very high powers of $i$ can be simplified by taking multiples of 4 of them , since $i^4=1$
say we have $i^{25}$, cant we rewrite this as $i^{4*\frac{25}{4}} = (i^4)^{\frac{25}{4}} = 1^{\frac{25}{4}} = 1$ ? and do this for every number that belongs to R?