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Here is my attempt.

Proof: By way of contradiction, suppose m and n are nonzero integers and that $n^2-m^2 = 1$. Then, $(n-m)(n+m)=1$.

That is where I get stuck, apparently we are supposed to show $(n-m)=(n+m)$ but I don't see how that would be true. Can anyone help?

1 Answers1

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$$(n-m)(n+m)=1 $$

$$\implies n- m=n+m=1 \implies (n,m)=(1,0) $$ $$ \;\color{red}{ \text{or}}\; $$$$n-m=n+m=-1 \implies (n,m)=(-1,0) $$ Since, $n$ and $m$ are given to be non-zero, this leads to a contradiction.

Jaideep Khare
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