The question looks so silly but anyway I have to ask. We know that every integer is divisible by $1$ but can we say that $1$ is a factor of every integer? Because $1$ is a unit of integers.
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Yes – aleden Nov 10 '17 at 12:04
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The answer can yourself to have looking careful at the (mathematical) definition of divisibility and of factor. (Some trouble could appears seen the involve definition of irreducibility but this is not question here). – Piquito Nov 10 '17 at 12:30
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Yes, $1$ is a factor of every integer. It is said not to be a proper factor (the proper factors are those that differ from $1$ and the number itself).
Beware anyway that it is not a prime factor and will not appear in the prime factorization.
Example:
$$60=2^2\cdot3\cdot5$$ has the factors $$\color{red}1,2,3,4,5,6,10,12, 15,20,30,\color{red}{60}.$$