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The other condition is for any $a \in (0,1), f$ is Riemann integrable on $[a,1]$ with $\int^{1}_{a} f(x) dx =0 $.

Adienl
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1 Answers1

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Yes. Let $f(\frac{1}{n})=n$ for $n \in \mathbb{N}$ and $f(x)=0$ elsewhere.

M. Van
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