$$\int_{-1}^{1} \overline{f(x)}g(x) \frac{1}{1+x^8} dx$$
Verify that this integral defines a scalar product in $L^2(-1,1)$ between $f(x)$ and $g(x)$. Give then an example of a $f(x)$ for which $\int_{-1}^{1} |f(x)|^2 \frac{1}{1+x^8} dx < \infty $ that it's not in $L^2(-1,1)$.
For the first demonstration, I think it's enough to state that:
1. $\langle f,g\rangle$ = $\overline{\langle g,f\rangle}$
$\overline{\langle g,f \rangle}= \overline{\int \frac{1}{1+x^8} \overline{g(x)}f(x)dx} = \int \frac{1}{1+x^8} \overline{f(x)}g(x)dx$.
2. $\langle f, \alpha g+\beta h\rangle = \int_{-1}^{1}\frac{1}{1+x^8} \overline{f(x)} (\alpha g(x) + \beta h(x)) dx = \alpha\langle f,g \rangle+\beta\langle f,h\rangle$.
3. $\langle f,f\rangle = \int_{-1}^{1} \frac{1}{1+x^8} |f(x)|^2dx \geq 0$.
Should I put something else?
I could not think of a function for the last request.