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Let $A$ be a chain complex and let $B \subseteq A$ be a sub complex. Assume there is a chain map $\alpha: A \to A$ such that the following conditions are fulfilled

(i) $\alpha$ is chain homotopic to the identity map on $A$

(ii) $\alpha(B) \subseteq B$, and $\alpha_{\big|B}:B \to B$ is chain homotopic to the identity on $B$.

(iii) For every $a \in A_n$, there is an $m$ such that $\alpha^m(a) \in B_n$

How can I prove that the inclusion $B \to A$ induces an isomorphism on homology?

I have tried to solve this exercise for some days, but with no further success, I posted a similar question before but didn't get any answers or hints. So far this is what I have done:

I have proved that the map $f: H_n(B) \to H_n(A)$ is a well defined map and I have proved that $\alpha^m$ will be homotopic to the identity as $\alpha$ is, however from here I have no idea how to prove the bijectivity, for the map being injective I have tried to prove that its kernel is trivial, i.e if $f(a)=0$ then $a=0$, this gives us a lot of information about $a$, for instance it is in the image and kernel of the differentials restricted to the $B_n$ but it is also in the image of $d_{n+1} : A_{n+1} \to A_{n}$, but I can't seem to prove that $a$ must be in the image of $d_{n+1}$ restricted to the submodule $B_n \subseteq A_n$.

EDIT: I have yet no proof for the injectivity but the surjectivity can be proven as follows: First, note that if given two homotopic chain maps $f_1 \simeq f_2: A_{\ast} \to B_{\ast}$ and $g_1 \simeq g_2: B_{\ast} \to C_{\ast}$ then $g_1 \circ f_1 \simeq g_2 \circ f_2: A_{\ast} \to C_{\ast}$. This allows us to conclude that since $\alpha \simeq \text{Id}$ we must have $\alpha^m \simeq \text{Id}$.

Homotopic chain maps induces the same maps on the homology groups of the chains, that is $$\alpha_{\ast}^m = \text{Id}_{\ast}: \text{ker}(d_n)/ \text{Im}(d_{n+1}) \to\text{ker}(d_n)/ \text{Im}(d_{n+1}).$$ Let $x \in \text{ker}(d_n)/ \text{Im}(d_{n+1})$, then $$x = \text{Id}_{\ast}(x)=\alpha_{\ast}^m(x),$$ that is $\alpha^m(x) = x$ in $\text{ker}(d_n)/ \text{Im}(d_{n+1})$ but $\alpha^m(x) \in B_n$ so in the map $H_n(B) \to H_n(A)$ induced by the inclusion we have $\alpha^m(x) \mapsto x$ and so surjectivity is obtained.

SECOND EDIT:

The injectivity can be proven as follows:

Consider the injection $$f: \text{ker}(d_{n}^{\ast})/ \text{Im}(d_{n+1}^{\ast}) \to \text{ker}(d_{n})/ \text{Im}(d_{n+1}),$$ suppose that $f(a)=0$, we have to prove that $a \in \text{Im}(d_{n+1}^{\ast})$. Since $\alpha$ and the identity is homotopic, then so is $\alpha^m$ and the identity, in particular the induce the same map in homology, i.e $$\text{Id}= \alpha^m : \text{ker}(d_{n}^{\ast})/ \text{Im}(d_{n+1}^{\ast}) \to \text{ker}(d_{n}^{\ast})/ \text{Im}(d_{n+1}^{\ast}),$$ so that proving that $a \in \text{Im}(d_{n+1}^{\ast})$ is equivalent to proving that $\alpha^m(a) \in \text{Im}(d_{n+1}^{\ast})$. It exists an $x \in A_{n+1}$ such that $d_{n+1}(x)=a$, thus by the properties of having a chain map we conclude that $$\alpha^m(a)=\alpha^m(d_{n+1}(x))=d_{n+1}(\alpha^m(x)),$$ however $\alpha^m(x) \in B_{n+1}$, we conclude that $\alpha^m(a) \in \text{Im}(d_{n+1}^{\ast})$ and so $a \in \text{Im}(d_{n+1}^{\ast})$ which completes the proof.

  • Could you perhaps give a source for this problem, where one may find clear hypothesis on the ground ring and on $A$ and $B$? If it is in the context of a course of algebraic topology and the Mayer-Vietoris sequence for singular homology, then the assumption that $A$ and $B$ are free modules over a PID is enough. In that case, as I mention, $i$ is in fact an homotopy equivalence, and this is proved in Spanier's text. – Pedro Nov 20 '17 at 17:07
  • @PedroTamaroff Dear Pedro, I have been in contact with the author and after some time it has come to my knowledge that assumptions are missing in the exercise, that would allow us to prove injectivity. I don't know if I should delete this question or let it remain and update everything. What do you think? – user502427 Nov 22 '17 at 16:00
  • Add the extra assumptions, but make clear what those are. =) – Pedro Nov 22 '17 at 16:25
  • @PedroTamaroff, see the edited question, injectivity should be easy now. You never gave me your input on my proof for surjectivity, what do you think? – user502427 Nov 22 '17 at 16:33
  • @PedroTamaroff Got a complete proof now, should I update with it? If you are interested.. – user502427 Nov 22 '17 at 17:28
  • Yes, sure. Go ahead. – Pedro Nov 22 '17 at 18:13
  • @PedroTamaroff The question is now edited with a complete proof. Please give me feedback, you have not done that so far, and i value your feedback. – user502427 Nov 23 '17 at 00:38
  • Please move the answer to an answer box. In the question box you should only write, well, questions! – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Nov 23 '17 at 01:27

2 Answers2

1

One can show that the inclusion $i:B\to A$ is an homotopy equivalence if $A$ is a chain complex of free modules and $B$ is another free subcomplex. Indeed, let $h$ be such that $1-\alpha=dh+hd$. For each basis element $a\in A$, pick the first $m=m_a$ such that $\alpha^m(a)\in B$. Now define $H$ on basis elements to be $h(1+\alpha+\cdots+\alpha^{m_a-1})(a)$, so that $H(a) = 0$ if and only if $a\in B$. Since $\alpha$ is a chain map, we have that $m_{\delta a} \leqslant m_a$ for each $a\in A$.

Now one observes that $D =1+dH+Hd$ has image in $B$ (this follows from a careful manipulation and the definition of $m_a$) that $Di = 1_B$ and that $iD$ is homotopic to the identity of $A$. You can check the details in Spanier's book on algebraic topology, page 178, theorem 14. This implies your result, because we can always do the following (when $A,B$ are chain complexes over a PID...): given $i:B\to A$ an inclusion of possible non-free complexes, we can construct new complexes $FB$ and $FA$ of free modules, an inclusion $Fi : FB\to FA$ and maps $FB\to B$ and $FA\to A$ such that the following commutes

$$ \require{AMScd} \begin{CD} 0 @>>> B @>{i}>> A\\ {} @A\varepsilon_BAA @A\varepsilon_{A }AA \\ 0 @>>> FB @> Fi>> FA \end{CD} $$ and the vertical maps are surjective quasi-isomorphisms. Since then $H(i)H(\varepsilon_B) = H(Fi)H(\varepsilon_A)$ and all maps but possibly $H(i)$ are isomorphisms, so is $H(i)$.

Pedro
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  • I have never tried this, what do you mean by certain properties? What does locally nilpotent mean? If you can fill in some more details I hope I can take it from there, and I will update my question with an answer. – user502427 Nov 19 '17 at 22:24
  • @user502427 The map $\alpha'$ is such that, for any $c\in C$ there is some $m=m(c)$ such that $\alpha'^m(c) = 0$ in $C$. By certain properties I mean: investigate! – Pedro Nov 19 '17 at 22:25
  • I will, I just think that your approach is far fetched, as the notions of locally nilpotent is not even mentioned in all of my book. – user502427 Nov 19 '17 at 22:43
  • What does $1- \alpha = dh+ hd$ mean? You mean $1-\alpha= d_{n+1} \circ s_n + s_{n-1} \circ d_n$, for maps $s_n: c_n \to c_{n+1}$? – user502427 Nov 20 '17 at 00:04
  • @user502427 Yes, though you will realize soon that all those subscripts are unnecessary. – Pedro Nov 20 '17 at 00:27
  • I think that your answer is to concise, why would I consider such a s.e.s? You ask if I can take it from here but I really don't think so. – user502427 Nov 20 '17 at 00:33
  • Even if I can prove that the chain complex $C=A/B$ is acyclic, that is the homology groups eventually all equals zero, how will this help me? I don't see this. – user502427 Nov 20 '17 at 00:42
  • @user502427 I have edited my answer. This seems harder than I thought, or perhaps I am missing something obvious. – Pedro Nov 20 '17 at 01:07
  • I have proved surjectivity, see my edited question above, it was easier than I thought but I am lacking a proof for the injectivity still. – user502427 Nov 20 '17 at 16:06
  • I don't know why u assume $A$ to be a chain complex of free modules, this is off topic and has nothing to do with the original question asked. – user502427 Nov 20 '17 at 16:38
  • @user502427 You don't seem to have read the whole argument. I would appreciate if you were a bit less confrontative with your responses: it really doesn't motivate me to continue thinking about this. So far I can either prove that $\pi_{A/B}$ is nullhomotopic, which shows in particular that $Hi$ is onto, and that if $A$ and $B$ are chain complexes over a PID, then $Hi$ is a quasi isomorphism. But I cannot see how to prove your statement in full generality. – Pedro Nov 20 '17 at 16:48
  • I have read the whole argument. But you are right, sorry! Anyway I have updated my question with a simple proof for the surjectivity, your input would be valuable. I will soon update with a proof for the injectivity aswell. – user502427 Nov 20 '17 at 17:00
0

Let $\alpha_* : H_n (A) \to H_n (A)$ denote the induced homology map. Since $\alpha^k (a) \in B_n$ for sufficiently large $k \in \mathbb{N}$, we deduce that $\alpha^k (A_n ) \subset B_n$ for $k$ large enough.

In particular, we have that $\big( \alpha^k \big)_* : H_n (A) \to H_n (B)$. But, as $\alpha$ is chain homotopic to the identity, we know that $\alpha_* = \textrm{id}$. By (covariant) functoriality of the association $\alpha \mapsto \alpha_*$, $$\big( \alpha^k \big)_* = \big( \alpha_* \big)^k = \textrm{id}^k = \textrm{id}= \alpha_*$$ Whence $H_n (A) \cong H_n (B)$.

Rellek
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  • You have shown that $\alpha$ "eventually" induces an isomorphism on homology, not the inclusion. – Pedro Nov 19 '17 at 22:26
  • Just precompose with the inclusion and employ functoriality again; then it must be that the inclusion induces an isomorphism $H_n (A) \cong H_n (B)$. – Rellek Nov 19 '17 at 22:28
  • I am not home yet I will read through this answer as soon as possible. – user502427 Nov 19 '17 at 22:30
  • You have to explain what you mean by covariant functoriality of the association, I have never heard this before, how does the last part imply that the inclusion induces an isomorphism? Thank you for your answer. – user502427 Nov 19 '17 at 22:45
  • Functoriality just means the association "commutes" with compostion, covariance means that the order is also preserved. The last part gives that $\alpha$ is an isomorphism $H_n (A) \to H_n (B)$. If we precompose with the inclusion, the $(\alpha \circ \iota)* : H_n (B) \to H_n (B)$ is also an isomorphism. By functoriality again, $(\alpha \circ \iota)* = \alpha_* \circ \iota_$. Since $\alpha_$ is an isomorphism, we deduce $\iota_*$ must also be. – Rellek Nov 19 '17 at 22:50
  • @Rellek I am kind of understanding what you mean, would you mind edit your answer with more details? It is hard to follow. – user502427 Nov 19 '17 at 23:19
  • I don't think that $\alpha^k(A_n) \subset B_n$ for $k$ large enough, it is true that for every element such $k$ exist, but the set of all such $k$ does not necessarily have an upper bound as you have assumed. – user502427 Nov 19 '17 at 23:48
  • Your objects are $R$-modules? Do we have conditions on the ring or modules? – Rellek Nov 19 '17 at 23:51
  • Yes they are modules, no conditions on the ring or modules except the ring being commutative, but nothing else is given. Thats why I don't see why you assume there is an upper bound for the $k$´s. – user502427 Nov 19 '17 at 23:52
  • Which book is this? – Rellek Nov 19 '17 at 23:55
  • It is an old compendium at the university written by one of the professors, I am more than happy to send you the pdf if you provide email. – user502427 Nov 19 '17 at 23:57
  • As noted by @user502427, there is no uniform bound on the $A_n$. – Pedro Nov 20 '17 at 00:11