If a sequence $(x_n)$ converges to $x$ in a metric space $(X, \rho)$, and converges to $y$ in a metric space $(X, \sigma)$, does it follow that $x=y$?
If not, what would be a counterexample, preferably on the space of continuous functions $C[0,1]$.
If a sequence $(x_n)$ converges to $x$ in a metric space $(X, \rho)$, and converges to $y$ in a metric space $(X, \sigma)$, does it follow that $x=y$?
If not, what would be a counterexample, preferably on the space of continuous functions $C[0,1]$.
No, this is incorrect for somewhat uninteresting reasons.
Let $X = \mathbb{R}$, and let $d(x,y) = |x-y|$. Let $x_{n} \in [0,1]$ be a sequence converging to $0$ in the $d$-metric. Now let's define a new metric, $\rho$, that is almost identical $d$, except that it thinks $0$ is actually $7$ and vice versa. Let's make this precise. Let $f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ be a function that swaps $0$ and $7$ and leaves all other numbers unchanged. Define $\rho(x,y) = d(f(x),f(y))$. Observe that $x_{n} \to 7$ in this metric.
The trouble here is that different metrics don't care about the way we like to draw our sets. We think $7$ is where it is because we draw the number line the Euclidean way. But it's just as legal to put the $7$ symbol at the origin and the $0$ symbol where the $7$ used to go.