From Assume $p \equiv3 \pmod 4$ and $n \equiv x^2\pmod p $. Given $n$ and > $p$, find one possible value of $x$., it appears that one possible value of x that fulfills Euler's criterion with the constraint for $p$ specified in the title is
$x \equiv n^{(p+1)/4}$.
But, I'm having trouble confirming this is a valid value of $x$.
Because with this value of $x$, I can square both sides to get
$x^2 \equiv n^{(p+1)/2}\pmod{p}$
Now combined with $n \equiv x^2 \pmod{p}$, this means
$n \equiv x^2 \equiv n^{(p+1)/2} \pmod{p}$.
Substituting this $n$ value back into Euler's criterion $n^{(p-1)/2} \equiv 1$, I get
$(n^{(p+1)/2)})^{(p-1)/2)} \equiv 1$
which gives
$n^{(p^2-1)/4} \equiv 1$
Now I'm stuck. $n^{(p^2-1)/4} \equiv 1$ doesn't seem to make sense, and doesn't verify the original $x$ is a valid value at all?