Given the question:
Use De Moivre’s formula to find a formula for $\cos(3x)$ and $\cos(4x)$ in terms of $\cos(x)$ and $\sin(x)$. Then use the identity $\cos^2(x) + \sin^2(x) = 1$ to express these formulas only in terms of $\cos(x)$.
I started out by rewriting $\cos(3x)$: $\cos(3x)$+$i \sin(3x)$=($\cos(x)$+$i \sin(x)$)$^3$
This could then be written into
$\cos(3x) = \cos^3(3x)-3 \cos(x) \sin^2(x)$
or
$\sin(3x) = \cos^2(x) \sin(x)- \sin^3(x)$
Then to use the identity I would substitute $1-\cos^2(x)$ for the $\sin^2(x)$
and in the second I would substitute $\sin(x)$ for $\sqrt{1 - cos(x)}$ right and would need to separate the $\sin^3(x)$ into $\sin^2(x) * \sin(x)$ and substitute from there. I'm a lot less confident about the second equation substitution. Would this be the right way to go about doing this problem?