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In the book ‘Topology’ by munkres, there’s one theorem.

If $X$ is locally compact hausdorff space if and only if there exists a space $Y$ satisfying followings:

  1. $X$ is a subspace of $Y$
  2. $Y\setminus X$ is a single point
  3. $Y$ is compact hausdorff space.

And $Y$ is unique up to homeomorphism.

In the part of uniqueness proof, the author shows if there exist two such spaces, say $Y$ and $Y'$, then there’s homeomorphism between them. In the process, he uses the fact that $X$ is open in $Y$. I don’t understand the reason why it’s open in $Y$.

I think subspace needs not be open in the original space.

Thank you for your help in advance

B. Mehta
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ylh0501
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1 Answers1

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$Y \setminus X$ is a single point, but singletons are closed in a Hausdorff space (and $Y$ is Hausdorff). So, the complement of $X$ is closed in $Y$ hence $X$ is open in $Y$.

B. Mehta
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  • Thank you so much, but could you explain why singletons are closed in a Hausdorff space? – ylh0501 Nov 27 '17 at 04:36
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    I'll refer you to https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2495812/singleton-sets-are-closed-in-hausdorff-space. It's a standard fact about Hausdorff spaces, and worth knowing! – B. Mehta Nov 27 '17 at 04:37