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I'm not convinced this is possible, as soon as you have $2$ distinct elements mapping to the same number, the function is no longer $1$-$1$ and therefore not a bijection.

carmichael561
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Let $f(x) = x$ for rational $x$ and $f(x) = 1-x$ for irrational $x$. This function is not only non-monotone, it is nowhere monotone (meaning that it is non-monotone on any subinterval of $[0,1]$).

User8128
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  • that's interesting, for some reason I was stuck on thinking it has to be continuous. thanks –  Nov 27 '17 at 17:21
  • Oh I see. If the function is continuous, then I believe it must be monotone as a consequence of the intermediate value theorem. – User8128 Nov 27 '17 at 17:22
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How about the bijection $f:[0,1]\to [0,1]$ with $f(x)=\begin{cases} x, \text{if}~~ 0<x<1\\ 1,\text{if}~~ x=0\\ 0,\text{if}~~ x=1\end{cases}$

This is not strictly monoton.

Cornman
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Remark that if a bijection is monotonous on $[0,1]$ you can build piecewise non-monotonous function based on the restriction of this bijection scaled to smaller intervals.

For instance $f:\begin{cases} x\in[0,\frac 14[ & 4x^2\\ x\in[\frac 14,\frac 12[ & \dfrac 34-x\\ x\in[\frac 12,\frac 34[ & x\\ x\in[\frac 34,1] & \dfrac{\cos(4\pi x-3\pi)+7}8\end{cases}$

zwim
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