$y=\cosh\lambda\cosh-\lambda at$ is a solution of $\frac{\partial^2y}{\partial t^2}=a^2\frac{\partial^2y}{\partial x^2}$
Here we have to prove whether this is true or false. I get $$F'(x)=\lambda\sinh\lambda x\cosh-\lambda at$$ $$F''(x)=\lambda^2 y$$ $$F'(y)=-\lambda a\sin\lambda x\sinh-\lambda at$$ $$F''(y)=\lambda^2a^2y$$ Thus both sides are equal, but the answer is false – why?