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Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and $a\in X$. Does it hold that $diam(U_R(a))=2R$? Here $U_R(a):=\{x\in X : |x-a|<R\}$

I already showed this for the case that $(X,d)$ is a normed space. In that case it was easy to see that $diam(U_R(a))=Rdiam(U_1(a))=2R$.

However, I can't apply the same argument here. If dealing with real numbers this seems obvious, but I think this isn't true for general metric spaces...any ideas?

Marc
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1 Answers1

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Think of a discrete space. Then the diameter of any subset with at least two points is $1$.