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Let me write down the exercise described in the title formally.

Let $X=E^2 \times I$ and $A=E^2 \times {0} \cup S^1 \times I$, where $E^2$ designates the ball of radius 1 in $\mathbb{R}^2$.

I want to show that $X$ is a deformation retract of $A$.

I must give a continous function $F:X\times I\rightarrow X$ that meets the 3 requirements below:

  1. $F(x,0)\in A$ for all $x\in X$;
  2. $F(x,1)=x$ for all $x\in X$;
  3. $F(a,t)=a$ for all $a\in A$ and for all $t\in I$.

Let $F(x,t)=t\cdot x+(1-t)\cdot\theta(x)$, where $\theta(x)$ is the intersection between $A$ and the line that unites $x$ to the point $(0,0,2)$. It's easy to see that $F$ meets the conditions above.

My question is how do I reason that this function is indeed continuous? Hatcher (Proposition 0.16) mentions something about the continuity of this map in a language completely foreign to me (due to my null knowledge of algebraic topology).

aadcg
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    I think that under your third condition it should read $a\in A$ in stead of $x\in X$. Proposition 0.16 in Hatcher says something more elaborate than the exercise at hand, since it considers what happens when retracting more than one level down in terms of CW-complexes. I think continuity can be established by looking at your proposed definition of $F(x,t)$ directly. It suffices to check that each term is continuous since continuity is preserved under finite sums and products. – String Dec 04 '17 at 14:06
  • @String I think OP is specifically asking why $\theta$ (the radial projection) is continuous. – freakish Dec 04 '17 at 14:08
  • @freakish: That could well be the case, though I got the idea that Hatcher's elaborate details about retracting more than one level was what threw the OP off. Also one easily get caught up in notation when reading the rather dense rendering in Hatcher. – String Dec 04 '17 at 14:13

3 Answers3

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While @String gave you the explicit formula for $\theta$ I will show you how to generalize it to any "good enough" closed subset and a projection onto it.

So what is $\theta$?


More generally consider a Banach space $E$, a fixed vector $w\in E$ and a closed subset $A\subseteq E$ such that $w\not\in A$. Now for any $v\in E$ consider following sets

$$I_v=\big\{tv+(1-t)w\ \big|\ t\in\mathbb{R}\big\}$$ $$A_v=I_v\cap A$$ $$B=\{v\in E\ |\ A_v\neq\emptyset\}$$

and the multivalued function

$$f:B\multimap E$$ $$f(v)=A_v$$

I leave as an exercise that $f$ is lower semicontinuous.

Now you can easily check that $A_v$ is closed. Assume that $A_v$ is additionally convex for each $v\in B$. Since $B$ is paracompact (as a metric space) the Michael selection theorem applies to $f$ and thus there exists a continuous selection $s:B\to E$ (i.e. $s(v)\in f(v)$).


In our case $E=\mathbb{R}^3$, $w=(0,0,2)$ and $A=E^2\times\{0\}\cup S^1\times I$. You can easily check that $A_v$ has exactly one point if non-empty. Thus $A_v$ is convex and by the Michael selection theorem there is a continuous selection. Note that this selection is unique (simply because $A_v$ has one point). The restriction of that selection to $X$ is equal to $\theta$.

freakish
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To prove that $\theta$ is continuous, the idea is to convert the geometric description given into a formula for $\theta$, and then to apply that formula. You'll be using what you know from calculus and analytic geometry, with a bit of topology, to prove that $\theta$ is continuous (so it's not algebraic topology that you use to prove continuity).

But, there is a twist: the formula will be in two pieces, corresponding to the two pieces in the expression $$A = (E^2 \times 0) \cup (S^1 \times I) $$ So, the outline for the proof goes like this:

  1. Write down set theoretic formulas for decomposing the domain $X$ into two parts $X = X_1 \cup X_2$, such that $$X_1 = \theta^{-1}(E^2 \times 0) $$ and $$X_2 = \theta^{-1}(S^1 \times I) $$
  2. Write down formulas for $\theta | X_1$ and $\theta | X_2$. These should be ordinary formulas which you can verify continuity of, using ordinary tools of calculus.
  3. To prove continuity of $\theta$ itself, apply the pasting lemma: verify that $X_1 \cap X_2$ is closed, and that the formulas for $\theta | X_1$ and $\theta | X_2$ agree on the intersection $X_1 \cap X_2$, and you are done.

Carrying out steps 1 and 2 requires good analytic geometry skills. I'll get you started by carrying out steps 1 and 2 for $X_1$, leaving you to try $X_2$ (which is harder).

The set $X_1$ is a frustum, obtained by starting with the solid circular cone having base $E^2 \times 0$ and apex $(0,0,2)$, and then intersecting that cone with the solid cylinder $E^2 \times I$. You can write it as $$X_1 = \{(x,y,z)\quad \,|\,\quad x^2 + y^2 \le \left(1-\frac{z}{2}\right)^2 \quad\text{and}\quad 0 \le z \le 1 \} $$ To get the formula for $\theta(x,y,z)$ when $(x,y,z) \in X_1$, take the ray from $(0,0,2)$ through $(x,y,z)$, and intersect that ray with $E^2 \times \{0\}$. You get $$\theta(x,y,z) = (0,0,2) + \frac{2}{2-z}\bigl((x,y,z)-(0,0,2)\bigr) = \bigl(\frac{2x}{2-z},\frac{2y}{2-z},0\bigr) $$ Since the plane $z=2$ is disjoint from the set $X_1$, this formula shows that $\theta | X_1$ is continuous. (You might also want to verify that this formula has image in $E^2 \times 0$ when $(x,y,z) \in X_1$).

Here, very briefly, are some portions of steps 1 and 2 of $X_2$. The set $X_2$ is the closure of the complement of frustrum $X_1$ inside the cylinder $E^2 \times I$, and so $$X_2 = \{(x,y,z) \quad \,|\, \quad (1-\frac{z}{2})^2 \le x^2 + y^2 \le 1 \quad\text{and}\quad 0 \le z \le 1\} $$ The formula for $\theta(x,y,z)$ will instead be obtained by taking the ray from $(0,0,2)$ through $(x,y,z)$ and intersecting with the cylindrical surface $S^1 \times I$.

Finally, you should be able to write down the set theoretic formula for $X_1 \cap X_2$ and verify that it is a closed set, and that the two parts of the formula for $\theta$ give the same outcome for $(x,y,z) \in X_1 \cap X_2$.

Lee Mosher
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Regarding $\theta(\mathbf x)$ where $\mathbf x=(x,y,z)$ we have $$ \theta(\mathbf x)= \begin{cases} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}}(x,y,z-2)+ (0,0,2) &\text{if}\quad \sqrt{x^2+y^2}>\frac{2-z}{2}\\ \quad\\ \frac{2}{2-z}(x,y,0) &\text{otherwise} \end{cases} $$

if I am not mistaken.


These expressions are continuous since when $$ \sqrt{x^2+y^2}=\frac{2-z}{2} $$ we have $$ \begin{align} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}}(x,y,z-2)+ (0,0,2) &= \frac{2}{2-z}(x,y,z-2)+ (0,0,2)\\ &= \frac{2}{2-z}(x,y,0) \end{align} $$ and all the rest is just compositions, sums, and products of continuous functions.

String
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